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I am reading this book at the moment: The Holy Grail : The History of a Legend it's not New Agey or whacky in any way and is a sensible account of the Medieval Romance and how it began and developed. But some interesting things from a spiritual interpretive perspective. The hero (Perceval usually) goes to the court of the Fisher King who is wounded or ill. He sees or is shown a ) a sword which broken and has to be mended b ) the lance which drips blood from its tip continuously and c ) the grail. But because he doesn't ask the question 'whom does the grail serve' - the Fisher King is not healed. Interestingly the land is sick (a wasteland) because the king is sick. Question: why would asking that question heal the king???? It is suggested the grail serves his father who was killed by a wicked brother (hints of Osiris myth) ... and the Fisher Kings are of a lineage starting with Joseph of Aramithea's brother in law and established when Joseph of A. brought the Grail from the Levant as it was the cup of the last supper and which held the blood of the crucified christ when J of A buried him. the lance of course is the spear used to pierce Jesus' side when he was on the cross. Anyway - anyone got an answer - why would aksing that question heal the wounded king????