ilumairen Posted January 24, 2016 To me there is little difference between reification and negation of experience. I'm curious about other's thoughts. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Marblehead Posted January 24, 2016 When I first joined this board I had one hellova fight with my Buddhist friends regarding the reification of Tao.  To make real. The Tao that can be told of is not the eternal Tao. Tao cannot be defined therefore it cannot be reified.  I'm not sure where you are with the "negation of experience". I'll give it a shot though.  We cannot negate an experience. By the time the experience reaches our brain the experience is already in the past. It is written in stone.  However, we can go into denial. This would be a form of negating the experience. But this is only in our brain; the experienced still happened. 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
ilumairen Posted January 24, 2016 When I first joined this board I had one hellova fight with my Buddhist friends regarding the reification of Tao.  To make real. The Tao that can be told of is not the eternal Tao. Tao cannot be defined therefore it cannot be reified.   I'm not sure where you are with the "negation of experience".  At this point it was intentionally left open, so as not to give the impression of there being a certain response that I'm looking for.  I'll give it a shot though.  We cannot negate an experience. By the time the experience reaches our brain the experience is already in the past. It is written in stone.  However, we can go into denial. This would be a form of negating the experience. But this is only in our brain; the experienced still happened.  Thank you for the shot. :cheers: Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Karl Posted January 24, 2016 It's the other side of the same fallacy. So, yes, there is no real difference. I always think of it from the perspective of musical notes in which the interlude is regarded as the defining element and therefore similarly equal to the note. Negating the note and then concretising the interlude achieves the same aim. Â its the same sophism and scepticism presented in a marginally different way. It's only use is in a literary work, but then we shouldn't confuse the map with the territory. 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
ilumairen Posted January 24, 2016 To clarify, I was not thinking concepts like Dao, but rather every day experience. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Marblehead Posted January 24, 2016 ... between reification and negation of experience. Well, that phrase still has me thinking "make real" counter "deny reality". Direct opposites. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Karl Posted January 24, 2016 Well, that phrase still has me thinking "make real" counter "deny reality". Direct opposites.  Make the non existent existent; make the existent non existent.  0=1 ; 1=0  A is-A ; -A is A  Identicurgal   1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
RigdzinTrinley Posted January 24, 2016 To clarify, I was not thinking concepts like Dao, but rather every day experience. If that is the case then I agree with you 100%  If we talk about Buddhist view + meditation (eyes + legs) then I would have something to say  But only in that context Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
RigdzinTrinley Posted January 24, 2016 Make the non existent existent; make the existent non existent. 0=1 ; 1=0 A is-A ; -A is AIdenticurgal 0=(+1)+(-1) 2 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Apech Posted January 24, 2016 To me there is little difference between reification and negation of experience. I'm curious about other's thoughts. Â Â Any chance of expanding that a little because I'm not I understand. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Karl Posted January 24, 2016 0=(+1)+(-1) Â That's 0=0 ; 1=1 Â Or in children's terms if you have a bag of sweeties then eat them all you have none remaining. (Brilliant give the child some of those sweeties as a reward). Â That's totally different from reification that posits zero is a special kind of something. So, having no sweeties is but the negative attribute of the traditionally existent sweeties, therefore is as existent as the sweeties themselves, or as non existent as the traditionally existent sweeties. Â I came across this idea sitting in the tv room of a B and B in Aberdeen around 1978. That 1=0, which is totally wrong, but still has tremendous world wide traction. Â Anyway it boils down to Kant/Hegel "no one can know anything for certain" or "it may be true for you but not for me". Â In other words it's subjectivity. Â Â 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
RigdzinTrinley Posted January 24, 2016 It means zero has the potential to manifest the polarities of existence without loosing its zeroness  The illusory play  Dancing insubstantial light  Its different then 0=0 yet its the same  Because even if 0=(+1)+(-1) is 0=0 yet the first operation shows you that within zero is the potential of all arisings good(+) and bad(-)  Yet those arisings are still 0  Ah la la ho! Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
RigdzinTrinley Posted January 24, 2016 It also means that if the negation is done correctly then all arisings are shown to be non arising that's why they are called arisings  And it shows that if the negation is done correctly that all reification never existed in the first place and has no basis whatsoever  If it is done incorrectly then the negation is just a reification and the silkworm mind continues to spin its own samsara infinitely  Going from good to bad and back again  ---------------  I'm not saying what you said is wrong, just trying to explain myself Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
3bob Posted January 24, 2016 I imagine someone out there has some transcendental trig for us? 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Karl Posted January 24, 2016 It means zero has the potential to manifest the polarities of existence without loosing its zeroness The illusory play Dancing insubstantial light Its different then 0=0 yet its the same Because even if 0=(+1)+(-1) is 0=0 yet the first operation shows you that within zero is the potential of all arisings good(+) and bad(-) Yet those arisings are still 0 Ah la la ho! Â Yet it doesn't show anything of the sort. Zero is just a numerical convenience. You are creating a mathematical equivocation in which zero Is being equated to existence. Remember, the map is not the territory. Â Out of non existence comes nothing. There isn't anything at all for anything to arise. Things are existent, they only change from states due to causality. A candle doesn't manifest out of nothing, it has to be manufactured in accordance with existent principles and materials. The subjectivist does not accept this, or excepts it only on a limited basis depending on how radically subjective they are. Â It comes back to existence exists and the primacy of existence vs the primacy of consciousness. Â Â 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Brian Posted January 24, 2016 Â I imagine someone out there has some transcendental trig for us? Yeah, but I gave up posting such things as a New Year's resolution. 2 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Karl Posted January 24, 2016 Yeah, but I gave up posting such things as a New Year's resolution. Â If anyone could....;-) Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
RigdzinTrinley Posted January 24, 2016 Sure Karl  I was just playing around 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Apech Posted January 24, 2016 Yet it doesn't show anything of the sort. Zero is just a numerical convenience. You are creating a mathematical equivocation in which zero Is being equated to existence. Remember, the map is not the territory. Out of non existence comes nothing. There isn't anything at all for anything to arise. Things are existent, they only change from states due to causality. A candle doesn't manifest out of nothing, it has to be manufactured in accordance with existent principles and materials. The subjectivist does not accept this, or excepts it only on a limited basis depending on how radically subjective they are. It comes back to existence exists and the primacy of existence vs the primacy of consciousness. Â Â Not according to some Daoist schools - 'you' comes from 'wu'. Â (e.g. Xuanxue school). Â And zero is the difference between say, 1 and 10 - which is 9 of course. Â Or if you prefer a quantum field where energy comes from nothing. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
RigdzinTrinley Posted January 24, 2016 Also I'm well aware that a non existent thing can never become an existent thing because it lacks the power to do so  Also an existent thing doesn't need to arise because it already did  So no need to talk about the arising of things  Don't you think? Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
3bob Posted January 24, 2016 (edited) I don't know about that RT since there is the "four fold negation" which I don't think is negation per se, but the starting point for a deeper wisdom which it can not reach. (and recognizes such as its quandary) Edited January 24, 2016 by 3bob 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Apech Posted January 24, 2016 I don't know about that RT since there is the "four fold negation" which I don't think is negation per se, but the starting point for a deeper wisdom which it can not reach. (and recognizes such as its quandary)  That's the whole point, I think. 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Marblehead Posted January 24, 2016 That's 0=0 ; 1=1 Or in children's terms if you have a bag of sweeties then eat them all you have none remaining. (Brilliant give the child some of those sweeties as a reward). That's totally different from reification that posits zero is a special kind of something. So, having no sweeties is but the negative attribute of the traditionally existent sweeties, therefore is as existent as the sweeties themselves, or as non existent as the traditionally existent sweeties. But if the child never had any candies and you tell them that they will not be getting any zero will never equal one.  You can't get something from nothing, no matter how hard you try. Just as useless an effort as trying to get blood from a beet. 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Marblehead Posted January 24, 2016 Or if you prefer a quantum field where energy comes from nothing. You can't get something from nothing. 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Marblehead Posted January 24, 2016 Potential is not equal to zero. It exists. It's just that it has not yet manifested and therefore cannot yet be defined. 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites